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INBDE · Free practice questions
Ten original INBDE practice questions on FK9 — Behavioral science, ethics and law, each answered on this page with a rationale and a source.
Last updated 2026-08-10
Question 1 of 10
Answer B: Re-ask a specific question, naming the procedure, expected bleeding, and planned prescriptions
A consultation asks a physician a specific clinical question, and "please clear the patient for dental treatment" is not a question — a reply saying "cleared for all dental treatment" with no number has answered nothing. A useful request states who you are and what you propose, the specific answerable question, what you already know including today's vital signs and the medication list, what you plan to prescribe, and how and by when to reply. A and D both read the reply as permission: the physician supplies facts, but only the dentist knows the procedure, so the dental decision stays with the dentist regardless of what the consultation says. C treats an unhelpful reply as a contraindication rather than as a request that needs rewriting, cancelling care nothing has ruled out.
Common trap: Reading "cleared" as cover for the decision instead of information you still have to weigh.
Source: Little & Falace's Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient
Question 2 of 10
Answer A: "So I know I explained it well, what will you do tonight at home?"
AHRQ's teach-back method asks the patient to state, in his own words, what he needs to know or do, framed as a check on the clinician's explanation rather than a test of the patient. The toolkit explicitly identifies "Do you understand?" and "Does that make sense?" as not teach-back questions, because patients answer yes whether they understood or not — which is exactly what happened here. B is another yes/no comprehension question, and handing over written instructions checks nothing about what he actually absorbed. C offers repetition without ever revealing what he took away; re-explaining is the response to a failed teach-back, not the probe that finds the failure. D invites questions, but a patient who does not know he misunderstood has no question to ask.
Common trap: Accepting a yes to a yes/no question as evidence of comprehension.
Source: AHRQ Health Literacy Universal Precautions Toolkit, 3rd Edition
Question 3 of 10
Answer C: Break the information into chunks, check after each, and re-explain a different way
AHRQ's guidance is explicit on both failures here. First, do not save teach-back for the end of the visit: chunk and check — break information into small segments and check comprehension after each one. Second, a patient who parrots your words may not have understood, and when teach-back fails you re-explain a different way and ask again; you do not move on. A treats a verbatim echo as comprehension and the signature as the consent, but a signature does not necessarily constitute informed consent. B repeats the identical failed explanation, violating the rule that re-teaching must take a different form. D points the wrong direction: with 36 percent of US adults at or below Basic health literacy, materials must get simpler and be paired with a verbal check, not more professional.
Common trap: Mistaking a parroted summary for understanding and re-teaching in the same failed way.
Source: AHRQ Health Literacy Universal Precautions Toolkit, 3rd Edition
Question 4 of 10
Answer B: Invalid, because alternatives, including no treatment, were never disclosed to him
The ADA describes informed consent as the conversation covering the dental problems observed, the nature of the proposed treatment, its benefits and risks, the alternatives, and the risks and benefits of those alternatives including not treating the condition, with the opportunity to ask questions. The omitted element here is the one candidates drop most: no treatment is always an alternative that must be disclosed. Consent is a process and discussion, not a document, so the missing conversation element defeats it regardless of the signature. A treats the form as the consent, when a signature does not necessarily constitute informed consent. C reasons backward from a good outcome, but adequacy of disclosure is judged at the conversation, not by results. D confuses the recommended contents of a written form with the disclosure duty itself.
Common trap: Letting a signed form and a good outcome stand in for a complete disclosure conversation.
Source: ADA — Types of Consent
Question 5 of 10
Answer D: Consent from a patient under nitrous oxide may be invalid; discuss it unsedated
ADA guidance states that consent obtained from a patient who is already under nitrous oxide, or on high doses of benzodiazepines or opioids, may be invalid: consent is taken before sedation, not after. When the plan changes, the consent must be updated, but the update must itself be a valid process — a discussion held once she is no longer sedated, since complex-treatment consent should be obtained in advance. A mistakes documentation for decision-making capacity; a nod under sedation plus a signature records nothing she could validly weigh. B misuses surrogates: she is a competent adult whose judgment is transiently clouded by sedation the practice administered, not a patient who needs a substitute decision maker. C shrinks the disclosure duty to fees, when it must cover the added procedure's nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives.
Common trap: Updating the plan mid-visit without noticing the patient can no longer validly consent to it.
Source: ADA — Types of Consent
Question 6 of 10
Answer A: As too broad and unspecific to satisfy the duty of informed consent
US courts have held that blanket wording such as "any and all treatment deemed necessary" is so broad and unspecific that it does not satisfy the duty of informed consent. Forms must be procedure-specific and in simple terms, and the consent itself is the conversation covering the specific diagnosis, proposed treatment, benefits, risks, and alternatives including no treatment — none of which a packet signed before any finding exists can contain. B invents a restorative-versus-surgical boundary; the defect is unspecificity, which invalidates the wording for a crown as surely as for surgery. C treats more signatures as more consent, but a signature does not necessarily constitute informed consent. D misapplies a real rule — some consents are valid only for a defined period and must be renewed — but renewal cannot cure wording that described no specific procedure.
Common trap: Treating a broad standing authorization as a substitute for procedure-specific consent.
Source: AAPD — Informed Consent
Question 7 of 10
Answer C: It recorded her decision but did not release him from the standard of care
When a patient declines treatment, the dentist explains the consequences of not accepting it, documents the refusal, and obtains a signed informed refusal for the record where possible — all of which happened. But the AAPD is explicit that an informed refusal does not release the dentist from the standard of care; if he believes the refusal violates proper standards, his options are to recommend a second opinion and/or dismiss the patient from the practice. A shifts the ongoing duty wholesale onto the patient, which is exactly what the no-release rule forbids. B converts an option that exists only where the refusal violates proper standards into an automatic consequence of any refusal. D invents a limitation found nowhere in the guidance; nothing bars continuing to monitor, inform, and re-recommend the indicated treatment.
Common trap: Reading a signed refusal as a discharge of the dentist's continuing duty of care.
Source: AAPD — Informed Consent
Question 8 of 10
Answer A: Yes; treatment may begin now, with the patient informed at the earliest opportunity
The AMA Code recognizes one narrow exception to prior informed consent: when a decision must be made urgently, the patient cannot participate, and no surrogate is available, treatment may begin without it, with the patient or surrogate informed at the earliest opportunity and consent obtained for ongoing care. All three conditions are met — the decision cannot wait, he is obtunded, and no surrogate is reachable. B misstates the ethics committee's role: its triggers are the absence of a surrogate for decisions that can wait, unresolvable disagreement, or a surrogate decision plainly contrary to the patient — not authorization of emergency care. C invents a two-clinician attestation the exception does not contain. D imposes the very delay the exception exists to prevent; no court appointment is required before emergency treatment.
Common trap: Demanding a consent formality in the one situation the consent rules themselves exempt.
Source: AMA Code of Medical Ethics — Opinions 2.1.1, 2.1.2, and 5.3
Question 9 of 10
Answer B: Give a clear recommendation, matching the level of involvement he asked for
AHRQ's SHARE Approach is a clinician-led shared-decision-making model built on dialogue exploring the benefits, harms, and risks of the options and what matters most to the patient — which this dentist has done. Healthy People 2030 frames the national objective as providers involving patients in decisions as much as they wanted, and that qualifier carries the answer: shared decision-making is not forcing choice on a patient who wants a recommendation; it is matching the level of involvement the patient asks for. Delegating the choice after honest disclosure is itself an autonomous decision. A mistakes autonomy for abandonment and refuses the involvement level he chose. C erects a mandatory instrument no element of the model requires, delaying the answer he asked for. D outsources a conversation the model makes the treating clinician's to lead.
Common trap: Confusing respect for autonomy with refusing to recommend when the patient requests a recommendation.
Source: AHRQ — The SHARE Approach
Question 10 of 10
Answer D: Improper and unethical, since the dentist initiated the recommendation himself
Under veracity — truthfulness — dentists shall not represent the care being rendered in a false or misleading manner, and the ADA Code's advisory opinion is directly on point: recommending removal of amalgam restorations from the non-allergic patient for the alleged purpose of removing toxic substances, when recommended solely by the dentist, is improper and unethical, and the same principle applies to recommending removal of any restorative material. A fails because consent cannot launder the recommendation; the ethical defect is the unsupported representation that precedes and corrupts the consent conversation. B stretches clinical judgment past its warrant — representing that a treatment can cure or alleviate conditions is unethical when the representation is not based on accepted scientific knowledge or research. C relocates the wrong to the fee, but the opinion condemns the recommendation itself.
Common trap: Believing that a willing, consented patient makes an unscientific recommendation ethical.
Source: ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct
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